Hugh H. Mills
Department of Earth Sciences
Tennessee Technological University
This collection of multiple-choice questions is provided to allow students in Geology 321 to review material and to prepare for tests. Some of these questions will actually be used on tests. However, other questions in addition to those listed here will also appear on tests. Preparation for tests therefore must include the study of lecture notes and the text as well as study of this question set. NOTE - the online version of the questions does NOT include figures. The figures may be seen on the question set kept at the Reserve Desk in the TTU Library.
CONTENTS
Geologic Time
Minerals
Igneous Rocks
Sedimentary Rocks
Metamorphic Rocks
Structure
Plate Tectonics
Earthquakes
Volcanoes
Rock and Soil Mechanics
Surficial Deposits
Landslides
Subsidence
Hydrogeology
GEOLOGIC TIME
1. The Cenozoic Era began how many million years ago?
a) 1.6 b) 35 c) 66
d) 225
2. The Pleistocene Epoch ended how many years ago?
a) 66 million b) 10 million
c) 1.6 million d) 10,000
3. The Quaternary period began how long ago?
a) 66 million years b) 10 million
years c) 1.6 million years d) 10,000 years
4. Which of the following is the longest interval of time?
a) Quaternary b) Pleistocene
c) Holocene d) Cenozoic e) Tertiary
5. The Tertiary Period began how many million years ago?
a) 1.6 b) 35 c) 66
d) 225
6. The Holocene Epoch began how many years ago?
a) 65 million b) 10 million
c) 1.6 million d) 10,000
MINERALS
1. Which of the following is NOT a mineral?
a) quartz b)
water c) ice d) diamond
e) calcite
2. Hematite is a/an :
a) oxide b)
carbonate c) silicate d)
sulfide
3. More than 90% of the earth's crust is made up of:
a) oxygen b) silicon
c) aluminum d) silicate minerals
4. Which of the following minerals crystallizes at a higher temperature
than biotite?
a) orthoclase b) muscovite
c) quartz d) olivine
5. Which of the following is NOT a silicate mineral?
a) fluorite b) quartz
c) olivine d) amphibole
6. Minerals may show any of the following directions of cleavage,
except one. Which is the exception?
a) 1 b) 2 c)
3 d) 4 e) 5 f) 6
7. Suppose you look at a number of crystals of a given mineral.
Which of the following properties will remain most constant?
a) crystal color b) crystal
shape c) interfacial angles d) crystal shape
8. Study of the structure of the mineral lattice is carried out
by the use of:
a) chemical analysis b)
x-rays c) gamma rays d) all of these
9. Which of the following properties does a substance NOT need
in order to be classified as a mineral?
a) cleavage b) solidity
c) inorganic d) crystalline
10. Which of the following is a mineral?
a) glass b) water c) ice
d) bone e) none of the above
11. Which of the following mineral groups makes up the bulk of the earth's
crust:
a) oxides b) silicates
c) carbonates d) sulfides
12. The most common element in the earth's crust is :
a) oxygen b) silicon
c) carbon d) aluminum
13. Which of the following is LEAST common in the earth's crust?
a) silicon b) oxygen
c) hydrogen d) aluminum
14. Gypsum is a/an :
a) sulfate b) oxide
c) carbonate d) halide
15. The most characteristic property of a mineral is its :
a) composition b) crystal
form c) internal structure d) cleavage e) order
16. The earth's crust consists mainly of :
a) native elements b) silicates
c) oxides d) sulfates
17. Which of the following is NOT a mineral, in the strict sense?
a) glass b) ice c) diamond
d) gold
18. Which of the following is the LEAST valuable property for mineral
identification?
a) cleavage b) crystal form
c) hardness d) color
19. The SECOND most common element in the earth's crust is:
a) oxygen b) aluminum c)
iron d) silicon
20. The chemical composition of a mineral must be
a) fixed b) variable within fixed
limits c) variable d) either a or b
21. The two formulas Mg2SiO4 and Fe2SiO4 represent:
a) two chemical compounds b) two
minerals that have related physical properties
c) two nonrelated minerals d)
variations of the mineral olivine.
22. A silica tetrahedron is composed of:
a) one silicon atom and three oxygen
atoms
b) one silicon atom and four oxygen
atoms
c) one silicon atom and three hydroxide
molecules
d) one silicon atom, three oxygen atoms,
and one or more cations, depending on their charge
23. The silicate mineral group contains all but which of the following
minerals:
a) quartz b) plagioclase
c) olivine d) dolomite
24. Kaolinite and other clay minerals fall into which of the silicate
mineral groups?
a) framework or 3-D b) sheet
c) single chains d) double chains
25. Quartz and feldspar are members of the:
a) framework or 3-D silicates
b) sheet silicates c) single-chain silicates
d) double-chain silicates
26. Ore minerals of iron include:
a) hematite b) magnetite
c) pyrite d) all of the above
27. Which of the following minerals is NOT a native element?
a) pyrite b) diamond c)
graphite d) gold
28. Which of the following minerals is NOT usually produced by weathering?
a) magnetite b) hematite
c) limonite d) kaolinite
29. The term "feldspar" refers to:
a) all kinds of plagioclase
b) plagioclase and orthoclase c) any light-colored minerals
d) none of the above
30. The elements oxygen and aluminum together make up nearly 75 percent
of the earth's crust, by weight.
a) true b) false
31. In the lattice of quartz, what fraction of the oxygen atoms in the
SiO4 tetrahedra are shared?
a) 1/8 b) 1/4
c) 1/2 d) 3/4
32. A good example of polymorphism in minerals is olivine, in which
Fe and Mg substitute freely for one another.
a) true b) false
33. Which of the following minerals begins to crystallize from the magma
at 1200 degrees C?
a) quartz b) olivine c) muscovite
d) orthoclase
IGNEOUS ROCKS
1. A fine-grained igneous rock composed of pyroxene olivine
and Ca-plagioclase is called:
a) gabbro b) andesite c)
basalt d) rhyolite
2. A fine-grained igneous rock composed of Ca-Plagioclase, amphibole,
and biotite, with small amounts of quartz and augite, is called:
a) gabbro b) andesite c)
diorite d) rhyolite e) basalt
3. What name would be given to a coarse-grained igneous rock
containing 10% quartz, 5% orthoclase, 75% Na-plagioclase, 5% amphibole,
and 5% biotite?
a) andesite b) diorite c)
granite d) gabbro
4. The last mineral to crystallize in the discontinuous series
of Bowen's Reaction Series is :
a) quartz b) muscovite c)
olivine d) orthoclase
5. The smaller crystals in a porphyry are called:
a) phenocrysts b) groundmass
c) xenolith d) aphanites
6. A tabular igneous rock body that cuts discordantly across other
rock formations is called a :
a) dike b) batholith c)
sill d) stock
7. The fact that different minerals crystallize at different temperature
best explains differences in the :
a) grain-size of igneous rocks
b) size of igneous rock masses
c) compositions of igneous rocks
d) amount of xenoliths
8. The largest crystals are found in which of the following igneous
bodies?
a) pegmatites b) batholiths
c) stocks d) lopoliths
9. The largest discordant pluton is called a :
a) dike b) laccolith c)
cactolith d) stock e) batholith
10. The grain size of an igneous rock is controlled mainly by:
a) rate of cooling b) kind of
minerals c) Bowen's reaction series d) pressure
11. Which of the following minerals is the last to crystallize in
Bowen's reaction series?
a) amphibole b) biotite
c) Na-plagioclase d) orthoclase
12. Which of the following is a CONCORDANT igneous intrusion?
a) dike b) stock c) batholith
d) sill
13. The large crystals in a porphyry are called:
a) phenocrysts b) groundmass
c) xenolith d) aphanites
14. A coarse-grained igneous rock composed of pyroxene, olivine, and
Ca-plagioclase is called:
a) gabbro b) andesite c)
basalt d) rhyolite
15. Most oceanic igneous rocks are:
a) basalt b) diorite c)
rhyolite d) granite
16. Which of the following mineral is the last to form in Bowen's reaction
series:
a) pyroxene b) orthoclase
c) amphibole d) plagioclase
17. Igneous rocks that cool very rapidly may have any but which of the
following textures?
a) phaneritic b) aphanitic
c) glassy d) porphyritic
18. Igneous rocks composed of grains of contrasting size are said to
have what kind of texture?
a) porphyritic b) periodotitic
c)polymorphic d) laccolithic
19. A piece of the country rock that is incorporated into an igneous
intrusion is called a:
a) pegmatite b) xenolith
c) laccolith d) lopolith
20. Dunite contains greater than 90% _____
a) Ca-plagioclase b) olivine
c) olivine plus pyroxene
d) olivine plus Ca-plagioclase
21. FELSIC igneous rocks are formed:
a) on or near the earth's surface
b) deep underground
c) in continental crust
d) in oceanic crust
22. A PLUTONIC igneous rock cools
a) rapidly b) slowly
c) near the earth's surface
23. The grain size of pumice is
a) coarse b) fine
c) glassy
24. According to Bowen's reaction series, which of the following minerals
is heaviest?
a) quartz b) orthoclase
c) olivine d) amphibole
25. The fact that certain minerals tend to occur together in igneous
rocks is explained by
a) Bowen's reaction series
b) variation in specific gravity of the minerals
c) a and b d) neither a
nor b
SEDIMENTARY ROCKS
1. Which of the following is NOT a common mineral in evaporite
deposits?
a) halite b) dolomite c)
NaCl d) gypsum
2. Sedimentary rocks composed mainly of particles less than 0.002
mm in diameter are called:
a) shale b) arkose c) sandstone
d) siltstone
3. The highest grade of coal is called:
a) bituminous b) lignite
c) anthracite d) peat
4. Which of the following sandstones would probably contain the
most feldspar?
a) graywacke b) subarkose
c) subgraywacke d) orthoquartzite e) arkose
5. The main difference between conglomerate and breccia is in:
a) particle size b) particle roundness
c) particle orientation d) mineralogy
6. FISSILITY is a property that usually characterizes:
a) claystone b) siltstone
c) shale d) sandstone
7. SYMMETRICAL ripple marks are most likely to be formed by:
a) rivers b) tidal
currents c) turbidity currents d) glaciers
8. Ninety percent of the earth's land surface is covered by:
a) sedimentary rocks b)
igneous rocks c) metamorphic rocks d) shale
9. An example of an EVAPORITE is a rock composed mainly of:
a) calcite b) dolomite c)
chert d) gypsum
10. Deposits of turbidity currents are most likely to show:
a) graded bedding b) cross bedding
c) mudcracks d) ripples
11. The most MATURE sedimentary rock type is:
a) arkose b) quartz sandstone
c) lignite d) subgraywacke
12. With increasing distance of stream transport, which of the following
changes does sediment NOT undergo?
a) percent of unstable
minerals decreases b) grain size decreases
c) sorting decreases d) grain
roundness increases
13. Pure carbonate deposits are most likely to occur:
a) Near large land masses b) away
from large land masses c) in deep water
d) in cold water
14. Sedimentary rocks composed mainly of particles between 0.002
mm and 0.05 mm in diameter are called:
a) shale b) sandstone
c) arkose d) siltstone
15. The lowest grade of coal is called:
a) anthracite b) bituminous
c) lignite d) antuminous
16. With increasing distance of stream transport, which of the following
changes does sediment undergo?
a) percent of stable minerals
decreases b) grain roundness increases
c) sorting decreases
17. All of the following features in sedimentary rocks are primary features
except:
a) fossils b) raindrop imprints
c) mudcracks d) cement e) cross bedding
18. All of the following are CLASTIC rocks except:
a) sandstone b) shale c)
breccia d) chert
19. DIAGENESIS includes all but which of the following processes?
a) lithification b) foliation
c) dessication d) compaction
20. Turbidity currents are most likely to produce:
a) mudcracks b) cross-bedding
c) foliation d) graded bedding
21. The squeezing of water out of buried sediments by the weight of
overlying sediments is called:
a) dessication b) lithification
c) compaction d) foliation
22. Which of the following is an example of an evaporite?
a) carbonate b) halite c)
limonite d) dolomite
23. Graded bedding is produced by:
a) density currents
b) turbidity currents c) seismic sea waves
d) tidal currents
24. The most common type of rock on the earth's SURFACE is:
a) intrusive igneous b) extrusive
igneous c) sedimentary d) metamorphic
25. In sedimentary rocks, which of the following is NOT included in
the concept of diagenesis?
a) burial b) compaction
c) cross-bedding d) cementation
26. Which of the following is NOT a common cement in sandstones?
a) iron oxide b) silica
c) gypsum d) calcite
27. The simplified weathering equation says that pre-existing rocks
and weathering reactions combine to form all BUT WHICH of the following:
a) oxides b) ions in solution
c) shale d) clay minerals
28. A conglomerate with relatively little fine material was probably
deposited by
a) running water b) flowing ice
c) debris flows d) ocean currents
29. The following diagram shows current ripples as seen from the side.
In what direction did the current that made the ripples flow?
a) left to right b) right to left
c) can't tell from this information
30. "Sediment" includes dissolved material as well as solid particles
derived from older rocks:
a) true b) false
METAMORPHIC ROCKS
1. Foliation in metamorphic rocks is produced by
a) lithostatic pressure b) directed
pressure c) any kind of pressure d) heat
2. Which of the following is a CATACLASTIC metamorphic rock?
a) phyllite b) amphibolite
c) mylonite d) marble
3. Marble is produced by the metamorphism of which of the following:
a) sandstone b) granite
c) limestone d) shale
4. Which of the following metamorphic rocks displays FOLIATION?
a) quartzite b) marble c)
slate d) hornfels
5. Which of the following minerals indicates the HIGHEST
degree of metamorphism?
a) chlorite b) sillimanite
c) biotite d) garnet
6. Which of the following minerals would most likely be of metamorphic
origin?
a) quartz b) plagioclase
c) pyroxene d) serpentine
7. The rock cycle allows igneous rocks to become metamorphic rocks
without going through the sedimentary rock stage.
a) true b) false
8. The main property used in classifying metamorphic rocks is:
a) composition b) texture
c) presence or absence of foliation d) grade
9. The zone of contact metamorphism surrounding an igneous intrusion
is called the:
a) aureole b) migmatite
c) metamorphic facies d) isograd
10. PRESSURE is the most important
factor in which type of metamorphism?
a) regional b) contact c)
dynamic d) granitization
11. A schist most commonly is metamorphosed:
a) sandstone b) basalt c)
shale d) limestone
12. Which type of metamorphism produces no foliation?
a) contact b) regional c)
cataclastic d) catabatic
13. Which of the following has the LARGEST crystals?
a) phyllite b) shale c)
mylonite d) schist
14. Which of the following represents
the HIGHEST degree of metamorphism?
a) garnet b) kyanite c)
staurolite d) chlorite
15. The type of metamorphism associated with faults is:
a) cataclastic b) contact c) regional
d) metasomatic
16. Which of the following metamorphic rocks has the FINEST
grain size?
a) schist b) phyllite c)
slate d) gneiss
17. The layered appearance in metamorphic rocks is known as:
a) foliation b) cleavage
c) parting d) fissility
18. Which of the following indicates the LOWEST degree of metamorphism?
a) kyanite b) garnet c)
chlorite d) biotite
19. Which of the following minerals is
MOST likely to be of metamorphic origin?
a) garnet b) biotite c)
quartz d) pyroxene
20. A rock that melts due to extreme heat and pressure, then cools
and solidifies, is called:
a) igneous b)
metamorphic c) cataclastic d) rejuvenated
21. The kind of metamorphism LEAST dependent on high temperatures is:
a) dynamic b) contact c)
regional
22. How does grain size affect the rate at which metamorphism
takes place?
a) faster if larger grains
b) faster if smaller c) no effect d) depends on conditions
23. Which of the following minerals is most likely to be of metamorphic
origin?
a) biotite b) quartz c)
pyroxene d) chlorite
24. The highest-rank metamorphic zone is:
a) chlorite b) garnet c)
biotite d) sillimanite
25. Which of the following does not display foliation?
a) quartzite b) slate c)
phyllite d) gneiss
26. Which type of metamorphism can produce foliation?
a) hydrothermal b) contact
c) cataclastic d) regional
27. Which type of metamorphism takes place at the greatest depth in
the crust?
a) hydrothermal b) contact
c) cataclastic d) regional
28. Cataclastic metamorphic rocks are formed
a) along faults deep below the surface
b) in baked zones c) along faults near the surface d) by chemically
active solutions
STRUCTURAL GEOLOGY
1. This sketch represents outcropping rock layers on a geologic
map. If A is the YOUNGEST rock layer, then the sketch represents:
a) anticline plunging toward top of
page b) syncline plunging toward top of page
c) anticline plunging toward bottom
of page d) syncline plunging toward bottom of page
2. The Basin and Range Province of the western United States is
characterized by:
a) volcanic mountains b) fault-block
mountains
c) folded and complex mountains
d) epeirogenic mountains
3. A fault with a low angle of dip in which the hanging
wall has moved up relative to the foot wall is called:
a) normal b) reverse c)
thrust d) strike slip e) no way to determine
4. If a rock layer strikes northeast-southwest, its dip will be:
a) northwest b) southeast
c) northwest or southeast d) northeast or southwest
5. Which block in the following diagram is the footwall?
a) A b) B c)
neither A nor B
6. Dip and strike may be measured for:
a) rock layers b) joint planes
c) foliation planes d) any of the above
7. If a rock layer dips due east, its strike is :
a) north - south b) east - west
c) north d) south e) can't tell from this information
8. The oldest rocks are found in the center of a :
a) basin b) dome c) syncline
d) monocline
9. This sketch represents outcropping rock layers on a geologic
map. If A is the OLDEST rock layer, then the sketch indicates:
a) anticline plunging toward top of
page b) anticline plunging toward bottom of page
c) syncline plunging toward top of page
d) syncline plunging toward bottom of page
10. A steeply dipping fault in which the hanging wall has moved up relative
to the footwall is called:
a) normal fault b)
thrust fault c) strike-slip fault
d) reverse fault
11. When a rock layer bends in response to stress,
and does NOT recover its original shape
when the stress is removed, its behavior is said
to be:
a) brittle b) plastic c)
elastic d) isoclinal
12. A steeply dipping fault in which the hanging wall has moved down
relative to the footwall is what kind of fault?
a) reverse b) thrust c)
strike-slip d) normal
13. If the solid line in the map below represents a strike-slip fault,
and the dashed line represents an offset road, what kind of strike-slip
fault is this?
a) right-lateral b) left-lateral
c) double lateral d) need more information
14. The youngest rocks are found in the center of a :
a) syncline b) monocline
c) anticline d) homocline
15. A fracture along which there has been appreciable movement is a:
a) joint b) fault c) fissure
d) crack
16. The following map shows a fault separating an area of older
rocks from an area of younger rocks. Which side is downthrown?
a) A b) B c) can't tell;
need more information
17. If the elastic limit of a rock is exceeded by stresses imposed on
it, the rock displays what kind of behavior?
a) elastic b) plastic c)
brittle d) a or b e) b or
18. An unconformity is:
a) a special kind of fold
b) a type of fault that does not conform to the behavior of other faults
c) a type of sedimentary facies
d) a discontinuity that
represents an interval of either erosion or non-deposition
19. If a layer dips northeast, its strike will be:
a) northwest-southeast b) northeast
c) east-west d) no way to determine
20. When a rock deforms under stress but recovers its original shape
when the stress is removed, its behavior is said to be:
a) brittle b) plastic c)
elastic d) isoclinal
21. Rocks that are deformed beyond the ELASTIC LIMIT will behave:
a) elastically b) plastically
c) brittlely d) a or b e) b or c
22. If a rock layer dips due north, its strike is:
a) north-south b) east-west
c) north d) south e) no way to determine
23. Tensional forces usually produce what kinds of faults?
a) normal b) reverse c)
thrust d) strike slip
24. Choose the term that BEST fits the diagram:
a) overturned fold b) asymmetric
fold
c) symmetric fold d) recumbent
fold
25. Faults with vertical fault planes are most likely to be what kind?
a) normal b) strike-slip
c) tensional d) thrust
26. The limbs dip away from the center of a:
a) basin b) syncline c)
dome d) all of these
27. The following map pattern shows a
a) anticline plunging to the right
b) syncline plunging to the right c) syncline plunging to the
left
28. The direction of a horizontal line lying in an inclined plane is
called the ________ of that plane.
a) azimuth b) dip c) strike
d) plunge
29. A stratigraphic column from a geologic map
Hartselle Formation
is shown on the right. Which formation is
St. Louis Limestone
oldest?
Chattanooga Shale
a) Hartselle b) St. Louis
c) Chattanooga
30. How many sets of joints are shown on the following map?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 10 d)
16
31. The following geologic map shows a/an:
a) anticline plunging to the right
b) syncline plunging to the right
c) syncline plunging to the left
d) anticline plunging to the left
PLATE TECTONICS
1. Plate boundaries where crust is destroyed are called:
a) mid-ocean ridges b) subduction
zones c) transform faults d) hot spots
2. Which of the following plates does NOT exist?
a) Eurasian b) Antarctic
c) Atlantic d) North American
3. Inclined seismic zones associated with trenches are known as:
a) spreading centers b) transform
faults c) M-discontinuity d) Benioff zones
4. The ocean floor becomes younger:
a) away from the mid-ocean ridges
b) toward the mid-ocean ridges
c) along the mid-ocean ridges
5. The plates of plate tectonics theory occur in which zone?
a) lithosphere b) asthenosphere
c) mesosphere d) pantosphere
6. The last time that the earth's magnetic field reversed was
about
a) 7,000 years ago b) 70,000 years
ago c) 700,000 years ago
d) 7,000,000 years ago
7. The first person to present a detailed theory of continental
drift was:
a) Francis Bacon b) Alexander
du Toit c) Alfred Wegener
8. Which of the following is evidence of continental drift?
a) jigsaw fit of the continental margins
b) matching rock formations between
continents
c) matching fossil records between continents
d) all of the above
9. Stripes of sea floor with normal and reversed magnetic polarity
are found:
a) paralleling mid-ocean ridges
b) at right angles to mid-ocean ridges
c) paralleling trenches
d) paralleling transform faults
10. The ABSOLUTE positions of continents through time, as opposed to
their RELATIVE positions, can be determined by the study of:
a) jigsaw fit of the continental margins
b) islands and seamounts made by hot spots
c) matching rock formations d) paleomagnetism of the sea floor
11. In the next 50 million years, we can expect all but which of the
following to take place:
a) Mediterranean Sea to grow larger
b) Eastern part of Africa to split off
c) Los Angeles to be carried northwest
of San Francisco
d) New land to emerge in Caribbean
12. In the vicinity of the Hawaiian Islands, the Pacific Plate is moving
in what direction?
a) SE b) NW
c) NE d) SW
13. Africa and South America began to drift apart about how long ago?
a) 300 my b) 50 my
c) 135 my d) 650 my
14. Boundaries along which crustal plates move laterally to each other,
but where crust is neither created nor destroyed, are known as:
a) strike-slip faults b) subduction
zones c) mid-ocean ridges d) transform faults
15. Which of the following is the poorest evidence for continental drift:
a) paleomagnetic evidence b) late
Paleozoic glaciation c) fossils of Mesozoic swimming reptiles
d) fit of the continents
16. Which of the following is evidence that Gondwanaland once existed?
a) Glossopteris plant fossils are found
on 5 continents b) glacial tillites dating to the same time interval
are found on 5 continents c) evidence that, if Gondwanaland did not
exist, ice sheets must have flowed out of the sea onto S. America, India
and Australia - a physical impossibility d) all of the above
17. If past trends continue into the future, all BUT WHICH of the following
can be expected to occur in the next 50 million years?
a) Atlantic Ocean will grow larger
b) Australia will move north
c) Pacific Ocean will grow larger
d) North America will move NW
18. Which of the following descriptions of plate movements is correct?
a) India is moving south b) Eurasia
is rotating clockwise c) North America is moving northeastward
d) South America is moving southward
19. Plates of the plate tectonics theory are destroyed:
a) where plates converge b) where
plates diverge c) where plates slide past one another
20. The geomagnetic polarity time sequence refers to:
a) the history of polar wandering
b) the history of pole reversal in the earth's magnetic field c)
the history of continental drift
21. A zone of weak rocks that extends from 100 kilometers to 250
kilometers below the earth's surface is the :
a) lithosphere b) asthenosphere
c) mesosphere d) hydrosphere
22. A typical rate of sea-floor spreading is
a) 1 meter /year b) 4 centimeter/
year c) 1 millimeter/ year d) 1 kilometer/year
23. The Hawaiian Islands are an example of a :
a) transform fault b) seamounts
produced by hot spot c) stratovolcano
24. The thinness of sediment found on the sea floors is best explained
by the:
a) youth of the sea floors b)
recycling of sediments
c) fact that most sediment in the ocean
is in a dissolved form
d) small amount of sediment supplied
to the sea
25. During the past 200 million years, the Pacific Ocean has:
a) grown larger b) grown smaller
c) stayed about the same size
26. The former supercontinent composed of all today's continents is
called:
a) Gondwanaland b) Laurasia
c) Pangaea d) Glossopteria
27. Paleomagnetism may be found in:
a) lavas only b) sedimentary rocks
only c) both lavas and sedimentary rocks
28. The plates of plate tectonics theory "float" over the :
a) lithosphere b) asthenosphere
c) mesosphere d) hydrosphere
EARTHQUAKES
1. In order for sliding along a fault to occur, ________ must
become greater than __________ between the fault blocks.
a) shear force / cohesion b) elastic
strain energy / friction
c) shear force / compressive force
2. Earthquake strength is measured by
a) Richter scale b) Mercalli scale
c) Modified Mercalli scale d) all of the above
3. The highest rating on the Modified Mercalli Scale of
Earthquake Intensity is
a) 8.9 b) X c) 9.3
d) XII e) 12
4. Knowledge of recurrence intervals of the largest, extremely
rare earthquakes requires study of
a) historical record of earthquakes
b) geological record of earthquakes
c) mathematical relationships between
magnitude and recurrence intervals
5. Changes in all BUT WHICH of the following may occur preceding
an earthquake?
a) electrical resistivity of bedrock
b) force of gravity c) magnetic field
6. Human-induced earthquakes have been documented for all
BUT WHICH of the following causes?
a) Urban build-up b) reservoir
filling c) injection of fluid wastes into deep wells
7. The earthquake wave that vibrates
at right angles to the direction of wave progress
is the
a) Q b) P c)
S d) L
8. In order to determine the epicenter of an earthquake, the minimum
number of seismic stations required is :
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d)
4 e) 5
9. Which type of earthquake forces are most damaging ?
a) vertical b) horizontal
c) both equally damaging
10. Which of the following has NOT been used to try to predict earthquakes?
a) change in seismic velocity of bedrock
b) ground-level deformation c) changing composition of water in wells
d) animal behavior e) actually, all have been used
11. The deeper the earthquake focus, the ________ the area over which
the earthquake will be felt, other things being equal.
a) smaller b) larger
c) actually, there is no relationship between these two variables
12. Which of the following has (have) been measured for the 1886 earthquake
that occurred in Charleston, SC?
a) magnitude b) intensity
c) both a and b d) neither a nor b
13. Geologic information on recurrence intervals of large, rare earthquakes
can be obtained by finding all BUT WHICH of the following:
a) bedrock faults in the earthquake
area b) displacement of dated surficial deposits by faults
c) dated liquefaction features in surficial deposits
14. Which of the following is NOT a common approach in long-term earthquake
prediction?
a) seismicity gap determination
b) recurrence interval determination c) changes in electrical resistivity
of bedrock
15. Substrate differences can affect seismic wave amplitudes by a factor
of
a) 2 b) 5 c) 10 d)
100
16. Earthquakes in the eastern U.S. occur less often than earthquakes
in the western U.S., but they may affect much wider areas.
a) true b) false
17. Study of surficial deposits may allow the recurrence interval of
fault movement to be determined if
a) the fault moves every thousand years
or so b) the fault is shallow c) fault movement is horizontal
18. The basic principle on which a seismograph works is
a) elastic strain b) inertia
c) momentum d) rotating drum
19. An earthquake takes place when
a) movement occurs along a fault
b) elastic strain energy on the fault blocks exceeds the friction
between the blocks c) a fault reaches the surface
20. In an earthquake, seismic wave amplitude is apt to be greatest on
a) bedrock b) unsaturated unconsolidated
materials
c) saturated unconsolidated materials
21. A SEISMICITY GAP is a
a) stable part of the earth's crust,
not subject to earthquakes
b) period of time during which no earthquakes
occur
c) place in a seismic belt where few
earthquakes have occurred
22. Which of the following indicates that an earthquake is about to
happen?
a) S waves speed up, then slow down
b) S waves slow down, then return to normal
c) P waves speed up, then slow down d) P waves slow down, then return
to normal
23. A seismogram is
a) a device for measuring
earthquake waves b) the traces produced by
a)
c) the curves that allow triangulation
24. The decreasing velocity of P waves before an earthquake apparently
results from
a) strain b) stress c) microfractures
in the bedrock
25. A focal depth of 500 km is said to be
a) shallow b) intermediate
c) deep
26. The point at which the first movements of an earthquake appear to
occur is the
a) focus b) focal depth
c) epicenter
27. The point on the earth's surface directly above the focus is the
a) focal depth b) origin
c) epicenter
28. The distance of an earthquake focus from a given seismic station
can be determined by
a) lag time b) triangulation
c) focal depth
29. Dating shows that a surficial deposit
was displaced by an earthquake fault 50,000 years ago.
There is no evidence of the fault moving before or after this episode.
Is this fault CAPABLE, according to the Nuclear Regulatory Commission criteria?
a) Yes b) No
30. The _________ is directly above the ____________.
a) hypocenter, focus b) focus, epicenter
c) epicenter, focus
31. The fastest earthquake wave is the
a) Q b) P c) S d) L
32. Surficial deposits can be dated by the radiocarbon method only if
the deposits
a) have a high clay content b)
contain organic materials
c) are less than 10,000
years old d) are less than 200,000 years old
33. The compressional earthquake wave is the
a) Q b) P c) S d)
L
34. The type of earthquake-caused ground settlement that causes the
most damage is
a) deep b) differential
c) surficial
35. Animals may be capable of short-term earthquake
prediction by responding to changes in all BUT WHICH of the following?
a) gravitational force b)
magnetic field strength
c) high-frequency sound waves
36. The lag time, used to tell the distance between the seismograph
and the epicenter, is the difference in the arrival times of which 2 seismic
waves?
a) P and S b) P and L c)
S and L
37. Energy released suddenly in an earthquake was stored as
a) potential energy b) friction
c) elastic strain energy
38. In SANDBLOWS,
a) dikes of clay protrude into overlying
sands
b) dikes of sand protrude into overlying
finer sediments
c) dikes of sand protrude into overlying
gravel
39. In the diagram below, unit 1 has an age of 3,000 years and
unit 2 an age of 2,000 years. Estimate the date that the fault last moved.
a) less than 3,000 years ago
b) more than 3,000 years ago
c) less than 3,000,
more than 2,000
years ago
d) less than 2,000 years ago
40. Approximately how many earthquakes of magnitude 8.0 to 8.9 can be
expected to occur in the world during one year?
a) 1 b) 18 c)
120 d) 800
41. Which type of earthquake is least likely to displace surficial deposits?
a) shallow focus b) deep focus
c) near plate margins
d) those associated with vertical faults
42. The amount of energy released by an earthquake of Richter magnitude
6 is how many times greater than that released by one of magnitude 4?
a) 10 b) 100 c) 30
d) 900
43. Evidence shows that a fault has moved about 400,000 years ago and
again about 100,000 years ago. Is this a CAPABLE fault, according to the
criteria of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission?
a) Yes b) No
44. Preceding some earthquakes, well water has shown an increase in
temperature.
a) true b) false
45. Which of the following scales is determined instrumentally?
a) Mercalli b) Modified Mercalli
c) Richter
46. The greatest intensity during an earthquake is always at the epicenter.
a) true b) false
47. Imagine a straight line A-B drawn across a fault line, with direction
of movement as indicated. Suppose the fault blocks continue to deform,
but without any sliding. Sometime later, the line A-B would look
like
a)
b)
c)
48. Which earthquake wave will not travel through a liquid?
a) Q b) P c) S d)
L
49. An earthquake magnitude 7 on the Richter scale will have a seismograph
trace AMPLITUDE how much greater than one of magnitude 6?
a) 1/6 b) 10 c) 31
d) 100
50. Sandblows are an example of _________ due to earthquakes.
a) subsidence b)
displacement of surficial sediments c) liquefaction
51. RESONANT MOTION during an earthquake results when a building or
other structure vibrates with the __________ frequency as the seismic waves
striking it.
a) same b) square of the c) square
root of the d) cubic root of the
52. At the site of a modern earthquake, evidence is found in a trench
that another earthquake of similar size occurred 1200 yr ago. What is the
recurrence interval of earthquakes at this location?
a) 600 yr b) 1200 yr c)
1800 yr d) 2400 yr
53. The earthquake wave that travels only in the outer layers of the
earth is _________ in speed compared to the other two main waves.
a) slower b) faster
c) intermediate
54. A fault is said to be "capable" if it
a) produces large earthquakes
b) has displaced ground during past 35,000 years
c) breaks the surface
55. Preceding some earthquakes, well water has shown an increase in
a) CO2 b) HCl c) radon
d) magnesium
56. The amount of ENERGY released by an earthquake of Richter magnitude
6 is how many times that released by one of magnitude 5?
a) 5 b) 10 c)
31 d) 100
57. Which of the following is a capable fault, according to the NRC?
a) fault moved 45,000 yr ago b)
fault moved 650,000 yr ago and 100,000
yr ago c) fault moved 370,000
yr ago and 150,000 yr ago
58. The age limit of radiocarbon dating in commercial labs is about
a) 10,000 yr b) 35,000 yr
c) 70,000 yr d) 100,000 yr
59. A focal depth of 50 km is said to be
a) shallow b) intermediate
c) deep
60. Which of the following factors do NOT affect the extent of earthquake
damage?
a) whether the ground is saturated or
not b) frequency of seismic waves
c) duration of shaking d) building
design e) actually, all of these affect damage
61. How might animals detect earthquakes?
a) by smelling changes in the chemical
composition of ground water b) by using their psychic powers
c) by detecting changes in the gravitational field d) by detecting
changes in the magnetic field
62. The elastic rebound theory says that earthquakes are caused by
a) sudden movements along faults
b) rocks rebounding after fault slip occurs
c) slow deformation stored as elastic
strain energy, which eventually overcomes friction between fault blocks
and produces slippage
63. The strongest earthquake in the 48 states during historical times
occurred in
a) Missouri b) South Carolina
c) California d) Nevada
VOLCANOES
1. Volcanoes in which of the following locations are best explained
by the "hot spot" theory?
a) Hawaiian Islands b) Japan
c) California
2. A volcano in which of the following locations is most
difficult to explain by plate tectonics theory?
a) California b) Japan c)
Hawaiian Islands
3. A glowing avalanche from a volcano contains all but which of
the following:
a) glowing rock fragments b) cloud
of hot gas c) lava
4. A volcanic dike is a:
a) kind of volcanic pipe b) fracture
that becomes filled with magma c) conduit with a circular cross-section
5. If a deposit of volcanic rock fragments is WELDED, its origin
probably was:
a) lahar b) air-fall tephra
c) glowing avalanche
6. For zoning volcanic hazards, which of the following activities
would be least useful:
a) monitoring volcanoes
b) gathering historical records of volcanoes
c) studying volcanic deposits near volcanoes
7. Volcanoes with low-viscosity magmas tend to occur:
a) on continents b) in oceans
c) about equally in each
8. Molten rock that has been extruded onto the surface
in liquid form is most properly called magma.
a) True b) False
9. Molten rock that has been extruded onto the surface
in liquid form is called:
a) lava b) magma c) basalt
d) tephra
10. On the volcanoes of the northwestern U.S., the most common cause
of lahars is :
a) ejection of water from crater by
eruption b) heavy rains during eruption
c) melting of ice and snow during eruption
11. The largest volcanic landforms are:
a) lava plains and plateaus b) shield
volcanoes c) stratovolcanoes
d) cinder cones
12. Which of the following contains the highest percentage of tephra?
a) shield volcanoes b) stratovolcanoes
c) cinder cones
13. The nature of the activity of a particular volcano depends mainly
on all BUT WHICH of the following:
a) viscosity of the magma
b) amount of volatiles in the magma
c) size of the volcano
14. Volcanoes occur mainly
a) along the margins of crustal plates
b) in the middle of plates c) in the oceans
15. Which of the following tephras generally is the LEAST dangerous?
a) glowing avalanche b) nuee ardente
c) air fall
16. The opening from which volcanic material issues onto the surface
is called a:
a) conduit b) vent c) crater
d) caldera
17. In mitigating volcanic hazards, which is the LEAST
important activity for the long-term approach?
a) map area covered by volcanic deposits
b) use of tiltmeters c) determine genesis of volcanic deposits
d) estimate recurrence intervals of eruptions
18. An increasing number of small earthquakes often precedes a volcanic
eruption.
a) True b) False
19. High-viscosity magma generally produces volcanoes that are
a) steep-sided and explosive
b) steep-sided and nonexplosive
c) gentle-sided and explosive
d) gentle-sided and nonexplosive
20. The most general term for the channelway that brings magma from
the reservoir to the surface is
a) pipe b) dike c) conduit
21. A bowl- or funnel-shaped depression on a volcano is called a
a) crater b) caldera c)
cone d) magma reservoir
22. FINE-GRAINED solid material blown from a volcanic vent
is most properly called
a) ash b) tephra c) cinders
23. Conical volcanoes with low slope angles are likely to be
a) shield volcanoes b) stratovocanoes
c) cinder cones
24. Material blown from a volcanic vent in solid form is called:
a) magma b) lava c) tephra
d) cinders
25. Which of the following tephras is blown straight up into the air,
then settles to earth?
a) nuée ardente
b) air fall c) fragmental flow d) glowing avalanche
26. Which of the following volcanic events commonly is least harmful?
a) air-fall tephra b) fragmental
flow tephra c) lahar
27. Tilt meters and gravity meters can
help predict volcanic eruptions because, just before an eruption,
a) volcanoes subside b) volcanoes
bulge as magma moves up from below
c) gases cause volcano to swell
28. Which of the following is the smallest volcanic landform?
a) lava plain b) shield volcano
c) stratovolcano d) cinder cone
29. Volcanoes with steep slopes are likely to have more explosive eruptions
than volcanoes with gentle slopes.
a) True b) False
30. Which of the following can cause lahars?
a) ejection of water out of a crater
lake during an eruption b) rapid melting of ice or snow on a volcano
c) heavy rains on loose material on volcano slopes d) all of the
above
31. The best way to predict what areas are likely to be affected by
a volcanic eruption is to
a) consider magma viscosity and slope
angles b) map major valleys leading away from volcano c) see
what areas were affected by eruptions in the past
32. Which of the following commonly is the LEAST hazardous?
a) lava flow b) glowing avalanches
c) lahars
33. All but which of the following may be used to help predict volcanic
eruptions
a) gas from fumaroles b) tilt
meters c) gravity meters d) thermal state monitoring
e) actually, all of these can be used.
34. An increase in which of the following gases from a fumarole often
precedes a volcanic eruption?
a) HCl b) NO3 c) CO2
d) H2O e) none of the above
35. Gravity meters can detect the movement of large masses of
magma beneath a volcano preceding an eruption.
a) True b) False
36. All volcanic landforms are basically conical in shape.
a) True b) False
37. Rock falls on stratovolcanoes are common because of all but which
of the following?
a) steep slopes b) weak rocks
c) presence of glaciers
d) earthquakes associated with eruptions
e) all of the above
38. An explosion may result if the volatiles in the magma attain a pressure
that exceeds the confining pressure of surrounding liquid and solidified
rock.
a) True b) False
39. Volcanoes with magma high in silica generally are ________
explosive than volcanoes with magma low in silica.
a) less b) more c) no more
40. Glaciers on volcanoes may show an increase in the number of crevasses
prior to an eruption because
a) increased heat melts base of glacier
b) swelling of volcano causes cracking
c) subsidence of volcano causes cracking
41. A volcanic crater occurs only at the top of a volcanic cone.
a) True b) False
42. A volcanic pipe is a
a) conduit with a circular cross-section
b) kind of volcanic dike
c) unusual type of conduit
43. Lahars from the 1980 St. Helens eruption traveled as far as
a) 12 km b) 50 km c) 80
km d) 120 km
44. Volcanoes that have explosive eruptions are likely to have _______
slopes than volcanoes that have non-explosive eruptions.
a) gentler b) steeper c)
about the same
45. Volatiles escape quickly from which type of magma?
a) high-silica content b) medium-silica
content c) low-silica content
46. Which of the following flows the fastest?
a) lava flow b) glowing avalanche
c) lahar
47. Volcanoes composed of alternating layers of lava and tephra are
called
a) shield volcanoes b) stratovolcanoes
c) cinder cones
48. Molten rock that has been extruded onto the surface in liquid
form is most properly called lava.
a) True b) False
49. The magma reservoir is
a) where magma accumulates in low places
after an eruption b) the liquid center of the earth c)
where magma is stored before an eruption
50. Viscous magmas generally are high in
a) iron b) magnesium c)
silica
51. The nature of volcanic activity depends on all but which of the
following:
a) age of volcano
b) viscosity of the magma c) amount of gases within
the magma
52. Poisonous gases given off by volcanoes include
a) H2S b) CO2 c) SO2 d)
CO e) all of the above
53. Which of the following usually represents the greatest volcanic
hazard?
a) poison gas b) ash falls c)
lahars d) lavas
54. Which of the following is related to the percent silica in a magma?
a) viscosity of magma b) explosiveness
of the volcano c) steepness of the volcano sides d) all of
the above e) none of the above
55. Which of the following variables is NOT used for volcano monitoring?
a) seismic b) tilting c) gravity
d) temperature e) actually, all of these are used
56. The layers in a stratovolcano consist of
a) lava b) tephra c) a and b
d) neither a nor b
ROCK AND SOIL MECHANICS
1. In stress-strain test, rocks that exhibit a significant amount
of plastic response before failure are said to be
a) plastic b) ductile c)
elastic d) brittle
2. Which ratio of silica tetrahedron: aluminum hydroxide
octahedron layers has the highest cation exchange capacity?
a) 1:1 b) 2:1 c) 1:2
d) 1:3
3. Particles between 1/16 and 2 mm in diameter are called
a) sand b) silt c) clay
d) gravel
4. The soil moisture content at the border between liquid and
plastic behavior is called the
a) plastic limit b) liquid
limit c) consistency limit d) Atterberg limit
5. Clay minerals differ in their ratio of tetrahedral to octahedral
layers. Which ratio is particularly subject to swelling by absorption
of water?
a) 1:1 b) 2:1 c) 1:2
6. The EFFECTIVE normal stress is equal to
a) total normal stress - pore pressure
b) total normal stress - shear strength
c) internal friction - cohesion
7. The straight segment of a rock stress-strain curve is used
to obtain the value of what parameter?
a) Et50 modulus of elasticity b) shear
strength c) RQD
8. A rock sample that shows an unconfined compressive strength
of 1125-2250 kg/cm2 is described as
a) very stiff b) stiff c) high
strength d) yielding
9. Which of the following is NOT included as part of internal
friction?
a) friction between particles
b) interlocking of particles c) cohesion between particles
10. In the Unified Soil Classification System, the classification of
FINE-GRAINED soil is based mainly on
a) Atterberg limits b) grain size
analysis c) sorting d) organic content e) a and
d
11. The geological term WELL SORTED corresponds to the engineering term
a) well graded b) poorly graded
c) highly porous d) highly plastic
12. The plastic limit and the liquid limit, together, are referred to
as the
a) Atterberg limits b) Mohr-Coulomb
limits c) Wegener limits
13. The Unified Soil Classification System considers only particle-size
distribution in classifying soils
a) true b) false
14. Which of the following factors does not affect shear strength?
a) friction of particles
b) interlocking of particles c) cohesion
d) slope angle
15. The soil mechanics test that involves rolling moist soil into thin
threads is the
a) plastic limit b) liquid limit
c) Atterberg limit
16. Which of the following rock types would probably show most variation
when plotted on the Deer and Miller engineering classification chart?
a) quartzite b) schist c)
marble d) granite
17. The liquid limit minus the plastic limit gives the
a) sensitivity b) soil activity
c) plasticity index d) solid limit
18. In a direct-shear apparatus, when the normal force is 10kg, a shear
force of 6 kg is required to cause failure. What is the angle
of internal friction?
a) 31 degrees b) 22 degrees
c) 37 degrees d) 53 degrees
19. A particle-size distribution characterized by roughly equal proportions
of all particle sizes would be called
a) poorly graded b. well sorted
c. poorly sorted d. ductile
20. The strength of intact rock specimens tested in the lab are almost
always greater than that of the overall rock mass in the field, because
a) lab testing is more accurate
b) discontinuities weaken the rock mass
c) the weight of the overlying rocks
weakens the rocks in the field
d) rocks in the field have been exposed
to weathering
21. Pore pressure reduces shear strength by
a) lubricating grains
and therefore reducing friction b) adding
weight that increases the shear stress c) reducing the normal
stress that produces friction
22. Which of the following classifications in the Unified Soil Classification
System has the highest strength?
a) well graded gravel b) clayey
gravel c) silty sand d) silt
e) silty clay
23. Particles larger than 2 millimeters are called
a) clay b) silt c) sand
d) gravel
24. Recall the Mohr-Coulomb equation for shear strength. Assume
a cohesionless soil that has the same density as water. Assume the
material is completely saturated from the surface to the potential failure
plane. The shear strength at the potential failure plane is
a) zero b) equal to the
internal friction only c) equal to particle interlocking only
25. Particle-size analysis of particles less than 1/16 mm in diameter
are carried out using
a) sieves b) settling tubes
c) screens d) X-ray diffraction
26. If the liquid limit is 40% and the plastic limit is 25%, the PLASTICITY
INDEX is
a) 60% b) 65% c) 15%
d) 32.5%
27. The effective normal stress is significantly different from the
total normal stress when the soil is
a) dry b) damp c) saturated
d) a or b e) b or c
28. The stress-strain relation shown by rocks is best described by which
model?
a) plastic model b) viscous model
c) St. Venant model d) Bingham model
29. Pore pressure reduces shear strength by lubricating grains and therefore
reducing friction
a) true b) false
30. Particles between 1/16mm and 2 mm in diameter are called
a) clay b) silt c) sand
d) gravel
31. The shear strength a material possesses when the effective normal
stress = 0 is called the
a) internal friction b)
friction between particles c) cohesion d) interlocking
of particles
32. POROSITY is found by dividing the volume of voids by the
a) volume of solids b) volume
of water c) total volume of the sample
33. The ratio between the shear stress and normal stress required
to cause failure in a soil is equal to the
a) angle of internal
friction b) tangent of the angle of internal friction
c) shear strength d) cohesion
34. In a direct-shear apparatus, when the normal force is 10 kg, a shear
force of 4 kg is required to cause failure. What is the angle of internal
friction?
a) 31 degrees b) 22 degrees
c) 37 degrees d) 15 degrees
SURFICIAL DEPOSITS
1. Residual regolith over igneous and metamorphic rock areas
consists mainly of
a) saprolite b) residuum
c) soil d) terra rossa
2. The density of structured saprolite is about _________ percent
that of fresh rock
a) 25 b) 50
c) 75 d) 90
3. In which of the following environments do sediments show the
least amount of sorting and stratification?
a) beach b) wind c) river
d) glacier
4. Which soil horizon is formed by the leaching of materials from
it?
a) A b) E c)
B d) C e) R
5. Which soil horizon is characterized by the accumulation of
materials leached from above?
a) A b) E c)
B d) C e) R
6. The modern Mississippi delta is less than _________ years old
a) 1000 b) 5000 c) 10,000
d) 15,000
7. The basic cause of sediment transport along shore lines is:
a) currents b) tides
c) waves striking shoreline at an angle d) waves
8. Loess sheets consist mainly of
a) clay b) silt c) sand
d) varies from place to place
9. Geologically, surficial deposits are classified according to
a) particle-size distribution
b) mineral content c) the dominant means of transportation by which
they were moved to the site of deposition
10. TERRA ROSSA soils are usually associated with which bedrock type?
a) limestone b) sandstone
c) siltstone d) granite
11. The most general term for mineral material at the earth's
surface that is not bedrock is:
a) soil b) regolith c) surficial
deposit d) overburden
12. Surficial deposits cover what percentage of the U.S.?
a) 10 b) 50
c) 85 d) 95
13. During the maximum cold phases of the Pleistocene, ice covered ____
percent of the earth's land area.
a) 10 b) 29
c) 49 d) 69
14. Which of the following commonly has the greater shear strength?
a) basal till b) ablation till
c) glacial-marine drift
15. FLOCCULATION of clay-sized particles often occurs when water is
a) still b) fresh c) saline
d) muddy
16. The main source of the silt in loess is
a) deserts b) glacier erosion
c) weathering d) semi-arid regions
17. SALTATING aeolian particles move by
a) colliding with other particles
b) rolling c) being carried by the wind in suspension
18. Sand dunes that parallel the direction of the prevailing wind are
called
a) transverse b) barchan
c) parabolic d) longitudinal
19. Higher bed loads generally are associated with meandering streams
rather than with braided streams.
a) True b) False
20. To produce the valley cross-section shown below, the stream
must have undergone
a) 2 episodes of filling, 1 of downcutting
b) 1 episode of filling, 1 of downcutting
c) 2 episodes of filling, 2 of downcutting
21. Sediment eroded from the outside of a meander-bend most commonly
is deposited
a) on a delta at the river's mouth
b) downstream c) on the inside of a downstream bend d) as overbank
deposits
22. FORESET bedding is seen on
a) bed-load deltas b) suspended-load
deltas c) all deltas
23. In the Appalachians, the main type of transported regolith is
a) colluvium b) talus c)
solifluction d) saprolite
24. Wavelength and amplitude of ocean waves depend on all but which
of the following?
a) wind velocity b) duration of
wind c) fetch of wind
d) actually, they depend on all of the
above
25. The basic reason for sediment transport along the coast is
a) because waves strike shore at an
angle b) beach drift c) longshore current
d) tidal currents
26. Structured saprolite has which of the following characteristics?
a) original structures of rock destroyed
b) decomposed bedrock c) density greater than original rock
27. Which soil horizon has the highest organic content?
a) A b) E c)
B d) C e) R
28. Most loess is what age?
a) Mesozoic b) Cenozoic
c) Quaternary d) Holocene
29. A poorly sorted mixture of angular rock fragments
and fine-grained materials deposited by mass wasting is called:
a) gravity deposit b) colluvium
c) talus d) solifluction
30. In a soil profile, the zone of unweathered bedrock is called
a) A b) E c)
B d) C e) R
31. Terra rossa is thicker if the limestone it has formed on
a) is largely free of impurities
b) has large amounts of impurities c) is karstified d)
contains magnesium
32. Clay deposited in which of the following environments is more likely
to be "sensitive?"
a) clear lake b) muddy lake
c) salt water d) dry lake
33. In wind transport, saltating sand grains rarely rise higher
than _______ above the ground
a) 1 cm b) 30 cm c) 5 m
34. Wind-transported particles are said to move by CREEP if they move
by
a) bouncing along b) rolling c)
sliding d) rolling or sliding
35. Which of the following glacier deposits generally is
richest in silt and clay
a) basal till b) melt-out till
c) stratified drift
36. Which deposit has the best-sorted and best-stratified sediments?
a) basal till b) ablation
till c) outwash d) glacial-marine drift
37. Compared to ablation (meltout) till, basal (lodgment) till
a) is less dense b) has a higher
shear strength c) has less fine material d) all of the above
38. The main type of regolith in the central Tennessee region is
a) saprolite b) terra rossa
c) alluvium d) till
39. Which of the following does NOT form lakes?
a) glacial erosion b) solution
of limestone c) stream erosion d) earthquakes
40. The most irregular sand dune is which type?
a) barchan b) star
c) parabolic d) transverse
41. During Pleistocene glaciations, lakes in closed basins of the southwestern
U.S. were ____________ than now.
a) larger b) smaller
c) no different
42. Which of the following formed the majority of lakes in the world?
a) landslides b)
glaciers c) solution of limestone d) earthquakes
43. Which of the following is NOT one of the two main kinds of stream
deposits?
a) point bar b) channel
c) overbank
44. Where still water is fresh, clays tend to remain
a) dispersed b) suspended
c) flocculated
45. Clays that settle out in fresh water are likely to have __________
than clays that settle out in saline water.
a) lower porosity b) higher sensitivity
c) lower density
46. Ridge-like landforms composed of till that are commonly left
when glaciers retreat are called:
a) ground moraines b) end moraines
c) kames d) eskers
47. Beach drift occurs because
a) of longshore currents b) of
waves c) of tidal currents
d) waves wash up beach at an angle,
but backwash is straight down the beach slope
48. Sand dunes whose horns point UP wind are called
a) parabolic b) barchan
c) star
49. As you travel east from the Mississippi River, the loess in Tennessee
a) gets thinner b) decreases
in particle size c) both a and b d) neither a nor b
50. Backswamp deposits often occur on flood plains because of
a) overbank deposits b)
natural levees impeding drainage c) their distance from the channel
51. How is loess typically distributed over the landscape?
a) uniformly over the topography
b) thicker on hilltops, thinner in valleys
c) thicker in valleys, thinner on hilltops
52. Overbank deposits nearest the channel commonly are
a) point bars b) flood plain
c) natural levees d) backswamp
53. If you dug a pit on a floodplain of a meandering stream, which
would be the typical vertical sequence that you would expect to see?
a) silt
b) silt c) gravel
------
------ --------
gravel
sand
silt
------
------ --------
sand
gravel sand
54. Braided streams for the most part lack overbank deposits
a) True b) False
55. Which of the following is composed of the finest sediments?
a) delta platform b) delta slope
c) pro-delta
56. Meandering streams, as composed to braided streams, have which of
the following?
a) lower gradients
b) more bed load c) more variable
discharges
57. Crescent-shaped sand dunes with horns pointing down wind are called
a) transverse b) barchan
c) parabolic d) longitudinal
58. Loess consists of
a) well sorted sand b) poorly
sorted silt c) well sorted silt d) poorly sorted silt
59. The locus of deposition on a bird's-foot delta changes periodically
because
a) distributaries are abandoned and
new ones formed b) sea level keeps changing
c) the delta keeps building outward
60. Loess is composed mainly of
a) clay b) silt c) sand
d) gravel
61. ___________ form where streams carrying an abundant
supply of sediment enter a still body of water that lacks
extensive wave and current scour.
a) bed-load deltas b) suspended-load
deltas c) deltas d) lacustrine deposits
62. Which part of a suspended-load delta corresponds to the bottomset
beds of a bed-load delta?
a) delta platform b) pro-delta
c) delta slope d) distributary
63. Longshore currents are produced by
a) waves b) beach drift
c) tides
64. Stream terraces are
a) abandoned flood plains
b) very broad flood plains c) similar to natural levees
65. On the outer parts of a delta platform, the only dry land
occurs on
a) platform sands
b) prodelta c) natural levees
of distributaries
66. The best-sorted sediments occur in which sedimentary environment:
a) beaches b) streams
c) tills d) alluvial fans
67. In a bed-load delta, which of the following dips at a high angle?
a) foreset beds b) topset beds
c) bottomset beds
68. The lateral flow of water within the surf zone is called
a) beach drift b) longshore
current c) a or b d) neither a nor b
69. The longshore current direction is shown by the
arrow. If a jetty is built at A, what will happen
to the beach at B?
a) deposition b) erosion
c) nothing d) need more information
70. Channel bars are most typical of
a) meandering streams b) braided
streams c) cut-off meanders d) a and b
71. Weathered rock that retains all the original structures of fresh
bedrock, but has been largely decomposed to clay and other minerals, is
called
a) colluvium b) talus c)
solifluction d) saprolite
72. Which of the following glacier deposits generally is denser?
a) stratified drift b) melt-out
till c) basal till
73. Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 major types of glacial
deposits?
a) drift b) till c) stratified
drift d) glacial-marine drift
74. Which deposit covers the most area of the earth's land surface?
a) glacial b) alluvial c)
colluvial d) aeolian
75. A meander bend that is physically isolated from the main stream
is called
a) cut-off meander b) oxbow lake
c) abandoned channel
76. The maximum amount of bed load that a stream can
carry under given conditions is known as the stream's
a) competence b) capacity
c) power
77. Terraces can be preserved only if lower flood plains are wider
than older, higher ones.
a) True b) False
78. Where alluvial fans merge, the result is a
a) bajada b) compound alluvial fan
c) pediment d) alluvial plain
79. The main cause of backswamp deposits on a flood plain is
a) floods b) oxbow lakes
c) natural levees
80. The main factor affecting shoreline deposits is
a) tides b) ocean currents
c) wind-driven waves
81. As an ocean wave approaches land, it begins to slow down when:
a) depth is twice the wavelength
b) depth is one-half the wavelength
c) depth is one twentieth of the wavelength
82. Colluvium is estimated to cover what percentage of area in
the Appalachians?
a) 55 b) 75 c) 85
d) 95
83. Which gravity deposit is most prominent in permafrost regions?
a) colluvium b) talus c)
creep d) solifluction e) landslide
84. The coast in a given area is a sea cliff that continues hundreds
of feet below sea level. Normally, waves breaking against
this cliff will be
a) larger than normal b) smaller
than normal c) nonexistent
LANDSLIDES
1. A factor of safety less than 1.0 means that the hillslope is
a) unstable b) marginally stable
c) stable
2. A flowage of underlying material that causes the overlying firmer
rock or soil to break into units and spread apart is called:
a) earthflow b) slump c)
spreading failure d) solifluction
3. Earthquakes may cause slope failure by
a) increasing shear stress
b) decreasing shear strength c) either a or b
4. In the formula for shear stress on a potential failure plane,
shear stress = (density)(z)(sinB)(cosB),
the cosB term
a) indicates the gravitational shear
component b) corrects for the effect of slope angle on the
cross-sectional area of the soil column c) indicates
the gravitational
normal component
5. SENSITIVITY is defined as the ratio of
a) shear strength:shear stress
b) undisturbed shear strength:remolded shear strength c) liquid limit:plastic
limit
6. Debris avalanches contain at least what percent water?
a) 10 b) 40 c) 60
d) they may be completely dry
7. Much of the destructiveness of debris flows is due to their
a) velocity b) boulder content
c) viscosity
8. Typically debris flows have specific gravities of
a) 1-1.5 b) 2-2.5 c) 3-3.5
d) 4-4.5
9. In permafrost regions, solifluction occurs
a) in the active zone b)
during the winter c) if vegetation is removed
10. A topple failure involves
a) rocks falling free through
the air b) rocks turning end over end c) slabs
becoming separated from cliff by tension crack, then tilting and eventually
falling forward
11. Soil creep is produced by repeated expansion and contraction of
the soil due to all but which of the following:
a) freezing-thawing b) wetting-drying
c) heating-cooling
12. A hillslope with an angle of 30 degrees is covered with regolith
having a density of 2kg/m3. What is the normal stress (in kg/m2)
on a plane 3 m below the surface (vertically) and parallel to the surface?
(note: for 30 degrees, sin=.5, cos=.866, tan=.577)
a) 2.6 b) 3
c) 4.5 d) 6.5
13. In a debris flow, commonly boulders are most plentiful
a) along the sides of the flow
b) at the front of the flow c) at the base of the flow
14. A slow, continuous movement in relatively plastic earth materials
below the weathered zone is called
a) soil creep b) deep creep
c) solifluction
15. Which of the following is NOT a common triggering mechanism of slope
failure?
a) earthquakes b) changes
in slope c) sudden increase of water
d) actually, all of these are common
triggering mechanisms
16. Slides are more likely where rock layers dip
a) parallel to slope b) into the
slope c) steeply d) gently
17. Which of the following means of stabilizing hillslopes does so by
reducing shear stress?
a) drain subsurface b) reduce
weight on head of slope c)install piles d) treat chemically
18. Soil creep is fastest
a) at the surface b) just
below the surface c) about 50 cm below the surface
19. An average creep rate is several _____ per year
a) meters b) inches c) centimeters
d) millimeters
20. The coefficient of sliding friction for a debris avalanche can be
estimated by
a) kinetic energy/potential energy
b) maximum runup/horizontal movement
c) vertical drop/ horizontal movement
21. Coherent slope movements that occur along plane failure surfaces
are called
a) slumps b) translational slides
c) rotational slides
22. Closed depressions due to reversed slopes often occur where on slumps?
a) near bottom b) near top
c) anywhere along the slump
23. Slabs of rock parallel to cliff face that tilt and then fall
forward are best termed
a) rock falls b) translational
slides c) topples
24. Which of the following is NOT a feature useful in the recognition
of landslides from aerial photos?
a) hummocky surfaces
b) isolated swamps or ponds c) anomalous
flat areas d) actually
all of these are useful
25. Trees can be used to date landslides
a) True b) False
26. A minimum estimate of the velocity of a debris avalanche can be
calculated from
a) horizontal travel distance
b) total vertical drop c) maximum runup
d) coefficient of friction
27. Most debris flows show a "plug" or zone of no-shear within their
central parts. Movement continues as long as the plug thickness is
______ than the thickness of the flow.
a) less b) greater c) no
different
28. Coherent movements that occur along curved failure surfaces are
called
a) slumps b) translational slides
c) earth flows
29. The minimum velocity of a debris avalanche may be estimated
long after it takes place by the formula v= (2gr)0.5. What is r in
this formula?
a) maximum runup b) net vertical
fall c) horizontal movement d) potential energy
30. Cutting trees on a hillslope makes failure more likely because of
all BUT WHICH of the following reasons?
a) loss of roots b) loss
of evaporation by trees c) loss of weight providing normal
stress that increases friction between grains
31. Slope stability maps consider all BUT WHICH of the following factors?
a) location of recent and prehistoric
landslides b) rock type c) dip of rock
layers d) actually all
of the above are considered
32. The most general term for the downslope movement of rock
and/or surficial material under influence of gravity is
a) landslides b) mass movements
c) slope failures
33. The most destructive landslides generally occur on
a) gentle slopes b) intermediate
slopes c) steep slopes
34. Water content of debris flows commonly is less than
a) 80% b) 60% c) 30%
d) 20%
35. Which of the following is NOT a factor used in classifying
mass movements?
a) speed b) water content
c) slope steepness d) coherent vs. noncoherent movement
36. Which of the following factors did NOT lead to the occurrence of
the Gros Ventre slide?
a) road construction
b) bedrock dip parallel to slope
c) weak, porous, and permeable nature
of the rock d) earthquake
37. Rotational slides most commonly occur in
a) solid rock b) sands and gravels
c) clays
38. The lines in the following diagram show bedrock layering.
Which side of the valley is more prone to slope failure?
a) left b) right c) both
the same
39. Changes in hillslopes may cause slope failure by
a) increasing shear stress
b) decreasing shear strength c) either a or b
40. In which of the following settings are debris flows LEAST common?
a) volcanoes b) temperate forests
c) deserts
41. Which famous landslide occurred along dip slopes in weak limestones
and clay layers, resulting in a disastrous flood?
a) Vaiont b) Gros Ventre
C) Anchorage, Alaska
42. The slowest form of mass wasting is
a) debris flow b) rock slide
c) creep d) solifluction
43. Solifluction is most prominent
a) in permafrost regions b) in
wet areas c) on steep slopes
44. Which of the following is fastest?
a) Solifluction b) debris flow
c) earthflow
45. The viscosity of debris flows is how many times greater than that
of water?
a) 2 b) 10 c) 100
d) 100,000
46. Which of the following means of stabilizing slopes does so by reducing
the shear stress?
a) draining the subsurface
b) installing piles c) reducing the slope angle
47. Very large catastrophic debris avalanches can travel
how many times farther horizontally than vertically?
a) 2 b) 5 c) 10 d)
100
SUBSIDENCE
1. Materials subject to hydrocompaction usually have their grains
bonded together by which of the following?
a) iron oxide b) clay films
c) silica
2. Which of the following does NOT favor hydrocompaction?
a) dry climate b) clay bonding
c) silica bonding d) calcium carbonate bonding
3. When water is artificially supplied to certain deposits,
strength is greatly reduced and the material compacts with consequent
ground subsidence. This process is called:
a) piping b) hydrocompaction
c) settling d) dessication
4. Underground coal mining has what advantages over open-pit mining?
a) allows more coal to be
removed b) makes land restoration easier c) is safer
d) none of the above
5. Which of the following is NOT a common cause of subsidence?
a) vibration settlement b) collapse
of cavern roofs c) piping d) fluid extraction
6. Fluid extraction produces subsidence due to
a) compaction b) consolidation
c) hydrocompaction d) settlement
7. The natural compression of saturated geological materials
under the influence of a static load is called:
a) compaction
b) consolidation c) hydrocompaction
d) settling
8. Subsidence due to oxidation is especially important
in swampy areas because the stagnant water in swamps
preserves organic material. The upper layers of
a swampy area thus contain much organic material, which
is subject to oxidation if the area is drained.
a) True B) False
9. The main effect of human activities that
produces sinkhole collapse is:
a) vibrations from highways,
etc. b) increasing runoff by paving c) lowering
the water table d) removing vegetation
10. The key to preventing damage from piping is to
a) avoid runoff concentration
b) treat fine-grained sediments on the surface
c) seal cliff faces in weak
materials d) prevent headward sapping
12. Subsidence in karst areas commonly
results form the sudden formation of sinkholes
due to the collapse of the underlying bedrock.
a) True b) False
13. Mexico City has undergone subsidence due to groundwater extraction
of as much as
a) .07m b) .7m c) 7m
d) 70m
14. Which of the following methods can reduce subsidence associated
with underground mining?
a) Make sure that at least 10m of hard
rock overlies the mine b) Make rooms wider to reduce amount
of vibration associated with digging c) use grout columns d) all
of the above
15. Subsidence resulting from conduits developed through relatively
insoluble fine-grained deposits is called
a) piping b) hydrocompaction
c) solution d) thermokarst
16. Which of the following forms of subsidence is almost completely
caused by human activities?
a) solution b) piping
c) hydrocompaction
17. The main agent in groundwater that dissolves limestone is
a) carbon dioxide b) sulfur dioxide
c) nitric acid d) carbonic monoxide
18. In a karst area, raising the water table and keeping it raised would
probably ________ the number of sinkhole collapses.
a) increase b) decrease
c) have no effect on
19. Ideal conditions for hydrocompaction commonly
occur in dry climates where rainfall rarely penetrates
below the root zone, and where dry strength
results from clay bonding, cohesion or partial cementation
by calcium carbonate.
a) True b) False
20. Subsidence that occurs due to artificially supplying
water to loose, dry deposits is called:
a) consolidation
b) hyrocompaction c) compaction d)
hydrocompression
21. If, after extraction of water, water is later restored to a reservoir
rock and the latter expands to its original volume, the compaction that
took place when the water was withdrawn is said to be
a) elastic b) nonelastic
c) consolidated d) unconsolidated
22. Subsidence over underground mines may occur how long after mining
ceases?
a) 1 yr b) 10 yr
c) 100 yr d) greater than 100 yr
23. A downward displacement of surface material caused by natural
or artificial removal of underlying support is called:
a) mass movement b) creep
c) subsidence d) landslide
24. The term ROOM AND PILLAR refers to
a) a type of collapse caused
by coal mining b) a method of mining coal in which
pillars of coal are left for support c) a method
of mining coal in which pillars of coal are dug from large
cavities called rooms
25. Solution of carbonates by carbonic acid requires the presence
of carbon dioxide in water. Most of this carbon dioxide is supplied
by
a) atmosphere b) ground water
c) decaying plant material
26. The main geological hazard introduced by the building of the ALYESKA
pipeline to carry oil from the North Slope of Alaska was
a) vibration settlement b) solution
c) thermokarst d) hydrocompaction
27. In piping, material is carried through the pipes as
a) dissolved load b) suspended-sediment
load c) bed load
28. What percent of the United States is underlain by soluble carbonate
bedrock?
a) 5% b) 15% c) 25%
d) 35%
29. Sinkhole collapse in karst areas commonly occurs because of
a) collapse of cavern roofs b)
collapse of surficial materials over a cavity c) rapid solution
of limestone near the surface
30. Which of the following would be LEAST likely to accelerate sinkhole
collapse in a karst area?
a) lowering the water table b)
raising the water table c) increasing the velocity
of water moving through the subsurface d)
alternatively raising and lowering the water table
31. CONSOLIDATION is
a) compaction due to addition
of water b) compression of saturated
materials under the influence of a static load
c) subsidence due to a static load
32. SPALLING in karst areas refers to
a) falling off of material from
the roof of a cavity between residuum and limestone
bedrock b) sinkhole collapse over a cavity in residuum
c) falling off of rock slabs from the ceiling of a cave
33. Collapse sinkholes in karst areas usually result from
a) collapse of bedrock b) collapse
of cavities in regolith c) collapse of cavities in bed rock
34. Piping is especially favored by
a) humid climates b) high
montmorillonite and sodium contents
c) coarse-grained sediments
d) dense vegetation
35. Thermokarst occurs when
a) the active zone is eliminated
b) the active zone becomes locally thicker c) the active zone
becomes locally thinner
36. Drainage of a swamp may induce subsidence due to all BUT WHICH of
the following effects?
a) oxidation of organic matter
b) hydrocompaction c) drying of clays
37. Which of the following factors does NOT favor subsidence due to
hydrocompaction?
a) loose materials b) large void
ratios c) moist climate
d) actually all of these favor
hydrocompaction
38. Which of the following is more likely to undergo NONELASTIC compaction
during fluid extraction?
a) gravel b) sand c) clay
39. Piping is most likely to occur in which of the following materials
and climates?
a) loess, arid b) fine-grained
alluvium, humid c) gravel, arid d) claystone, humid
40. During the process of consolidation, the load
a) is shared equally by the water and
the solids b) is gradually transferred from the water to the solids
c) is gradually transferred from the solids to the water
41. The rising of a cavity toward the earth's surface due to slabs of
material falling off the cavity's ceiling is called
a) spalling b) sinkhole
subsidence c) room and pillar effect d) mine subsidence
42. Which type of subsidence is most likely in the Cookeville area?
a) vibration settlement
b) sinkhole collapse c) piping d) hydrocompaction
43. Piping is said to be self-enhancing because
a) subsurface conduits eventually
break through to the surface and produce gullies b) as fine sediments are
washed out, the easier it is for conduits to grow c)
once a conduit forms, it draws subsurface flow from surrounding material
that lacks conduits
HYDROGEOLOGY - GROUNDWATER
1. Ground water potential of igneous and metamorphic rocks generally
is
a) low b) moderate
c) high
2. The HEAD at an unconfined water table is equal to
a) piezometric pressure
b) piezometric pressure + the elevation of
the point c) the elevation
of the water table
3. Which of the following likely has the highest POROSITY?
a) gravel b) shale c) granite
4. The saturated zone of ground water is referred to as the
a) vadose zone b) capillary zone
c) phreatic zone
5. HEAD or PIEZOMETRIC POTENTIAL is the sum of
a) water table elevation and piezometric
pressure b) piezometric pressure and elevation of the point above
an arbitrary datum c) water table elevation and elevation of the
point above an arbitrary datum
6. Which of the following likely has the greatest HYDRAULIC CONDUCTIVITY?
a) clay b) sand c) sandstone
d) gravel
7. Limestone with karst development is poor for ground-water supply
because
a) water is apt to
be polluted b) water moves mainly in conduits
rather than as diffuse flow c) ground water availability is too erratic
d) all of the above
8. The rate of discharge of a well during pumping divided by the
resulting drawdown of the water table due to pumping is the
a) transmissivity b) specific
capacity c) hydraulic conductivity
9. When water is pumped from a well at a steady rate,
the cone of depression will enlarge until
a) the increase in
the slope of the piezometric surface increases
the flow of water toward the well until it balances the pumping
b) it takes water away from nearby wells c) pumping stops
10. Which of the following topographic positions is likely to have the
poorest water-well yield?
a) valleys and broad ravines b)
hillslopes c) hill crests d) flat upland areas
11. The simplest index of aquifer performance to measure is
a) transmissivity b) specific
capacity c) coefficient of permeability
12. The water table is shallowest
a) on hill tops b) on hillslopes
c) in valleys
13. Ground water that occurs between two aquicludes is said to be
a) confined b) unconfined
c) perched
14. The hydraulic gradient is the
a) difference in head divided by water
table elevation
b) slope of the water table between
the two points
c) difference in head divided by horizontal
distance between the two points
15. A rock or sediment that stores but does not transmit a significant
amount of water is called an
a) aquifer b) aquiclude
c) aquitard
16. Groundwater flow direction obeys all but which of the following
rules?
a) from high to
low potential b) at right angles
to equipotential lines c) parallel to the water table d) actually,
all these rules apply
17. A rock or sediment that stores and transmits water, but not enough
to be economic is called an
a) aquifer b) aquiclude
c) aquitard
18. In a group of nearby wells, the well that produces the most water
probably is the one with
a) the smallest cone of
depression b) the largest cone of depression
c) the highest water table
19. If the water in a piezometer tapping an
aquifer stands above ground level the aquifer is said to be
a) equipotential b) artesian
c) confined d) perched
20. Which of the following is likely to be an AQUICLUDE?
a) sandstone b) shale c)
conglomerate
21. Which of the following is NOT a criterion favorable for the occurrence
of groundwater on the Highland Rim?
a) in topographic
low b) at least 1/2 to 1 mile back of the
Highland Rim escarpment c) amplitude of water level fluctuation less
than 10 feet d) thin regolith above bedrock
22. The water table
a) parallels the land surface
b) parallels the land surface but has less relief c) parallels
the land surface but has greater relief d) is a mirror image of the
land surface
23. Which of the following probably
has the lowest hydraulic conductivity?
a) sand b) clay c) granite
d) shale
24. Which rock type likely will provide the best ground-water supply?
a) limestone b) sandstone
c) shale
25. In its simplest form, Darcy's law relates mean velocity to
a) cross-sectional area x hydraulic
gradient b) hydraulic conductivity x head
c) hydraulic conductivity x hydraulic
gradient
26. EQUIPOTENTIAL surfaces for ground water are determined by
a) contouring the head values in wells
and piezometers in an area b) accurately surveying the
topography in an area c) measuring the slopes between
head values in wells and piezometers
27. A solid-walled pipe is inserted into the ground. The
height to which water rises in the pipe is the _______ at that
point.
a) piezometric surface b) piezometric
pressure c) water table
28. Groundwater that occurs above shallow aquicludes
of limited extent is called
a) confined b) unconfined
c) perched
29. TRANSMISSIVITY of an aquifer is defined as
a) coefficient of permeability
of the unit b) rate of discharge of a well during pumping divided
by resulting drawdown of the water table due to pumping c) hydraulic
conductivity x thickness of the aquifer
30. Linear features in the landscape as seen on Landsat images may assist
in finding groundwater supplies because
a) they show topographic
lows b) they show zones of layered sedimentary rock
c) they show faults or other fractured zones that may have locally enhanced
the permeability
31. HEAD or PIEZOMETRIC POTENTIAL corresponds to the
a) water-table elevation b) the
height to which the water in a piezometer rises
c) amount of potential energy per unit
weight of water
32. On the Highland Rim, a satisfactory ground-water supply is most
likely to be found in the Fort Payne Formation because
a) this limestone has abundant impurities
and therefore forms thick regolith b) this limestone has more diffuse
flow than other limestones in the area c) this limestone has few
impurities and therefore forms thin regolith
33. A rock or sediment that both stores and transmits a significant
amount of water is called an
a) aquifer b) aquiclude
c) aquitard
34. The vadose zone of ground water refers to the
a) saturated zone b) unsaturated
zone c) zone in which water is drawn upward from the water table
by capillary action
35. Which of the following deposits will probably provide
the best ground-water supply?
a) loess b) till c) alluvium
d) lake clay
36. Groundwater that is in direct vertical contact with the atmosphere
through open pores of an aquifer is called
a) confined b) unconfined
c) perched d) artesian
37. The capacity of a rock to transmit water is called
a) porosity b) void ratio
c) permeability
38. A CONE OF DEPRESSION in the water table results from
a) excess rate of pumping
b) excess volume of pumping c) any significant amount of pumping
d) defective pump
39. Which of the following usually has the highest porosity?
a) gravel b) sand c) clay
d) silt